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| Subject: | Re: [Full-disclosure] Rapid integer factorization = end of RSA? |
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| Date: | Thu, 26 Apr 2007 13:07:45 +0200 |
On Thu, Apr 26, 2007 at 03:04:39PM +0400, Eugene Chukhlomin wrote:
#v+ gap> p; 163473364580925384844313388386509085984178367003309231218111085238933310010450\ 8151212118167511579 gap> q; 190087128166482211312685157393541397547189678996851549366663853908802710380210\ 4498957191261465571 gap> n := p * q; 310741824049004372135075003588856793003734602284272754572016194882320644051808\ 150455634682967172328678243791627283803341547107310850191954852900733772482278\ 3525742386454014691736602477652346609 gap> (p * (n - q)) mod n; 0 gap> #v- What is it supposed to proove?My gypothesis: if exists subsets(A1...An) and (B1...Bn) which satisfies equality: A1*B1 +...An*Bn = N = p*q, then exists some of them, which satisfies equality A1*(-B1)+...An*(-Bn)=p*q*(q-1)
But what does that proof have to do with your gypothesis? Except that p*q * (q-1) = p*q = p*q * (-1) = p*q * (N-1) = 0 (mod N) what is obvious equality. -- Stanislaw Klekot _______________________________________________ Full-Disclosure - We believe in it. Charter: http://lists.grok.org.uk/full-disclosure-charter.html Hosted and sponsored by Secunia - http://secunia.com/
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